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Clinical History Taking Examination: 50 Most Common Questions for Obstetrics and Gynecology

OBSTETRICS STATION - 50 Most Common Questions

1. What is gravidity and parity?

Answer: Gravidity is the total number of pregnancies (including current). Parity is the number of pregnancies that reached viability (≥20 weeks or ≥500g). Using GTPAL: G=Gravida, T=Term births, P=Preterm births, A=Abortions, L=Living children.

2. How do you calculate the estimated date of delivery (EDD)?

Answer: Naegele's rule: Add 280 days (40 weeks) to the first day of the last menstrual period (LMP). Alternative: LMP + 9 months + 7 days. First trimester ultrasound is most accurate for dating.

3. What are the danger signs in pregnancy that require immediate attention?

Answer: Severe headache, visual disturbances, epigastric pain, persistent vomiting, vaginal bleeding, loss of fetal movements, regular contractions before 37 weeks, rupture of membranes, severe abdominal pain.

4. What is the recommended weight gain during pregnancy?

Answer: Depends on pre-pregnancy BMI: Underweight (BMI <18.5): 28-40 lbs; Normal weight (BMI 18.5-24.9): 25-35 lbs; Overweight (BMI 25-29.9): 15-25 lbs; Obese (BMI ≥30): 11-20 lbs.

5. What are the routine antenatal investigations?

Answer: Booking bloods (FBC, blood group & antibodies, rubella immunity, syphilis, HIV, hepatitis B), urine dipstick, dating scan (10-13 weeks), anomaly scan (18-20 weeks), glucose tolerance test (24-28 weeks), Group B Strep screening (35-37 weeks).

6. What is preeclampsia and its diagnostic criteria?

Answer: Pregnancy-specific condition after 20 weeks characterized by new-onset hypertension (≥140/90 mmHg) plus proteinuria (≥300mg/24h) or other maternal organ dysfunction or uteroplacental dysfunction.

7. What are the risk factors for preeclampsia?

Answer: Nulliparity, previous preeclampsia, family history, chronic hypertension, diabetes, renal disease, autoimmune disease, multiple pregnancy, maternal age >40 or <20, obesity, thrombophilia.

8. What is gestational diabetes and how is it diagnosed?

Answer: Glucose intolerance first recognized during pregnancy. Diagnosed by oral glucose tolerance test (75g): fasting glucose ≥5.6 mmol/L or 2-hour glucose ≥7.8 mmol/L.

9. What are the complications of gestational diabetes?

Answer: Maternal: increased risk of preeclampsia, cesarean delivery, future type 2 diabetes. Fetal: macrosomia, hypoglycemia, respiratory distress syndrome, shoulder dystocia, perinatal mortality.

10. What is placenta previa?

Answer: Placental implantation in the lower uterine segment, partially or completely covering the internal cervical os. Presents with painless vaginal bleeding in the third trimester.

11. What is placental abruption?

Answer: Premature separation of a normally implanted placenta before delivery. Presents with painful vaginal bleeding, uterine tenderness, and contractions. Can be concealed or revealed.

12. What are the stages of labor?

Answer: First stage: onset of labor to full cervical dilatation (latent and active phases). Second stage: full dilatation to delivery of baby. Third stage: delivery of baby to delivery of placenta.

13. What is preterm labor and its management?

Answer: Regular contractions with cervical changes before 37 weeks. Management includes tocolytics, corticosteroids for fetal lung maturity, magnesium sulfate for neuroprotection, and delivery planning.

14. What are the indications for cesarean section?

Answer: Absolute: placenta previa, cord prolapse, uterine rupture. Relative: previous cesarean scar, breech presentation, fetal distress, failure to progress, severe preeclampsia.

15. What is shoulder dystocia and its management?

Answer: Failure of spontaneous delivery of shoulders after delivery of head. Management: McRoberts maneuver, suprapubic pressure, episiotomy, internal rotation, delivery of posterior arm.

16. What are the causes of postpartum hemorrhage?

Answer: 4 T's: Tone (uterine atony), Trauma (lacerations), Tissue (retained products), Thrombin (coagulation disorders). Uterine atony is the most common cause.

17. What is the management of postpartum hemorrhage?

Answer: Resuscitation, uterine massage, uterotonics (oxytocin, ergometrine, misoprostol), examination for trauma, evacuation of retained products, blood transfusion if needed, surgical intervention if conservative measures fail.

18. What are the contraindications to breastfeeding?

Answer: Maternal: HIV (in developed countries), active TB, certain medications, illicit drug use. Infant: galactosemia, phenylketonuria (relative). Temporary: mastitis, cracked nipples.

19. What is hyperemesis gravidarum?

Answer: Severe nausea and vomiting in pregnancy leading to dehydration, weight loss >5%, and electrolyte imbalance. Usually occurs in first trimester and may require hospitalization.

20. What are the components of the Bishop score?

Answer: Cervical dilatation, effacement, station, consistency, and position. Each scored 0-3 (position 0-2). Score ≥8 indicates favorable cervix for induction.

21. What is oligohydramnios and its causes?

Answer: Decreased amniotic fluid volume (<5-8cm on ultrasound). Causes: fetal renal abnormalities, growth restriction, post-term pregnancy, ruptured membranes, placental insufficiency.

22. What is polyhydramnios and its causes?

Answer: Excessive amniotic fluid volume (>20-25cm). Causes: diabetes, fetal abnormalities (neural tube defects, GI anomalies), multiple pregnancy, hydrops fetalis, idiopathic.

23. What is intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)?

Answer: Fetal weight below 10th percentile for gestational age. Causes: placental insufficiency, maternal hypertension, smoking, infections, fetal anomalies, multiple pregnancy.

24. What are the risk factors for venous thromboembolism in pregnancy?

Answer: Pregnancy itself, cesarean section, immobility, obesity, previous VTE, thrombophilia, multiple pregnancy, maternal age >35, smoking, dehydration.

25. What is the management of a breech presentation?

Answer: External cephalic version at 37 weeks, planned cesarean section, or vaginal delivery if specific criteria met. Depends on type of breech, fetal weight, and maternal factors.

26. What are the types of abortion?

Answer: Threatened (bleeding, closed cervix), inevitable (bleeding, open cervix), incomplete (partial passage), complete (all products passed), missed (fetal death, closed cervix), septic (infection).

27. What is an ectopic pregnancy?

Answer: Implantation outside the uterine cavity, most commonly in fallopian tubes. Presents with pain, bleeding, and may cause rupture and hemorrhage.

28. What are the risk factors for ectopic pregnancy?

Answer: Previous ectopic pregnancy, PID, tubal surgery, IUD use, smoking, assisted reproduction, endometriosis, previous abdominal surgery.

29. What is a molar pregnancy?

Answer: Abnormal pregnancy with abnormal placental development. Complete mole: no fetal tissue, diploid paternal chromosomes. Partial mole: fetal tissue present, triploid chromosomes.

30. What are the stages of cervical effacement and dilatation?

Answer: Effacement: thinning of cervix (0-100%). Dilatation: opening of cervix (0-10cm). Primigravida: effacement then dilatation. Multigravida: simultaneous effacement and dilatation.

31. What is active management of third stage of labor?

Answer: Prophylactic oxytocin, controlled cord traction, and uterine massage. Reduces risk of postpartum hemorrhage compared to physiological management.

32. What are the indications for fetal monitoring?

Answer: High-risk pregnancies, oxytocin augmentation, epidural anesthesia, meconium-stained liquor, prolonged labor, maternal pyrexia, previous cesarean section.

33. What is the significance of meconium-stained liquor?

Answer: May indicate fetal hypoxia. Increases risk of meconium aspiration syndrome. Requires continuous fetal monitoring and pediatric team availability at delivery.

34. What are the contraindications to vaginal delivery after cesarean (VBAC)?

Answer: Previous classical or T-shaped incision, previous uterine rupture, other uterine surgery, medical contraindications to vaginal delivery, inability to perform emergency cesarean.

35. What is the management of Group B Strep in pregnancy?

Answer: Screening at 35-37 weeks. If positive, intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis with penicillin or ampicillin to prevent neonatal sepsis.

36. What are the warning signs of preterm labor?

Answer: Regular contractions before 37 weeks, pelvic pressure, low back pain, change in vaginal discharge, cramping, rupture of membranes.

37. What is the management of prelabor rupture of membranes?

Answer: Confirm rupture, assess gestational age, exclude infection, steroids if <34 weeks, antibiotics if indicated, delivery planning based on gestational age and maternal condition.

38. What are the complications of multiple pregnancy?

Answer: Preterm labor, growth restriction, preeclampsia, gestational diabetes, anemia, polyhydramnios, malpresentation, cord accidents, twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome.

39. What is symphysis pubis dysfunction?

Answer: Pelvic girdle pain due to increased mobility of sacroiliac joints and symphysis pubis during pregnancy. Managed with physiotherapy, support belts, and pain relief.

40. What are the normal physiological changes in pregnancy?

Answer: Cardiovascular: increased blood volume, cardiac output, decreased BP in 2nd trimester. Respiratory: increased tidal volume, decreased functional residual capacity. Renal: increased GFR, glucosuria.

41. What is the management of nausea and vomiting in pregnancy?

Answer: Dietary modifications, ginger, vitamin B6, antihistamines (cyclizine), metoclopramide, ondansetron for severe cases. Hospitalization for hyperemesis gravidarum.

42. What are the risk factors for postpartum depression?

Answer: Previous depression, family history, poor social support, unplanned pregnancy, relationship problems, financial stress, complicated delivery, baby blues lasting >2 weeks.

43. What is the management of postpartum depression?

Answer: Psychological support, cognitive behavioral therapy, antidepressants (compatible with breastfeeding), social support, treatment of underlying medical conditions.

44. What are the causes of decreased fetal movements?

Answer: Fetal sleep cycles, oligohydramnios, placental insufficiency, fetal growth restriction, medications, maternal position, fetal death. Requires urgent assessment.

45. What is the management of decreased fetal movements?

Answer: Detailed history, fetal heart rate monitoring, biophysical profile, ultrasound for growth and liquor volume, consider delivery if compromised.

46. What are the indications for induction of labor?

Answer: Post-term pregnancy, preeclampsia, diabetes, fetal growth restriction, oligohydramnios, maternal medical conditions, intrauterine fetal death.

47. What methods are used for induction of labor?

Answer: Prostaglandins (PGE2 gel/pessary, misoprostol), artificial rupture of membranes, oxytocin infusion. Choice depends on Bishop score and clinical situation.

48. What are the complications of epidural anesthesia?

Answer: Hypotension, prolonged second stage, increased instrumental delivery rate, rare complications: dural puncture, total spinal block, neurological damage.

49. What is the management of cord prolapse?

Answer: Emergency cesarean section, elevation of presenting part, knee-chest position, avoid handling cord, tocolytics if needed, delivery within 30 minutes.

50. What are the contraindications to prostaglandins for induction?

Answer: Previous cesarean section, grand multiparity, malpresentation, placenta previa, severe asthma, glaucoma, cardiac disease, ruptured membranes with infection.


GYNECOLOGY STATION - 50 Most Common Questions

1. What is the normal menstrual cycle?

Answer: Average 28 days (range 21-35), menstruation 3-7 days, blood loss 5-80ml. Follicular phase: FSH stimulates follicle development. Ovulation: LH surge. Luteal phase: progesterone preparation for implantation.

2. What are the causes of amenorrhea?

Answer: Primary: absent periods by age 16. Secondary: absence for 6 months in previously menstruating woman. Causes: pregnancy, PCOS, hypothalamic dysfunction, pituitary disorders, ovarian failure, uterine abnormalities.

3. What is polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)?

Answer: Endocrine disorder with insulin resistance, hyperandrogenism, and ovulatory dysfunction. Diagnosed by Rotterdam criteria: 2 of 3 features: oligo/anovulation, hyperandrogenism, polycystic ovaries on ultrasound.

4. What are the complications of PCOS?

Answer: Metabolic: diabetes, cardiovascular disease, obesity. Reproductive: infertility, pregnancy complications, endometrial cancer. Psychological: depression, anxiety, reduced quality of life.

5. What is endometriosis?

Answer: Presence of endometrial tissue outside the uterus. Causes cyclical pain, dysmenorrhea, dyspareunia, infertility. Diagnosed by laparoscopy. Treatment: hormonal suppression, surgery, pain management.

6. What are the symptoms of endometriosis?

Answer: Dysmenorrhea, chronic pelvic pain, dyspareunia, dyschezia, dysuria, infertility, cyclical symptoms, bloating, fatigue. Pain may be cyclical or constant.

7. What is pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?

Answer: Infection of upper genital tract including endometrium, fallopian tubes, and ovaries. Usually sexually transmitted. Causes: chlamydia, gonorrhea, anaerobes. Can lead to tubal infertility.

8. What are the complications of PID?

Answer: Tubal infertility, ectopic pregnancy, chronic pelvic pain, tubo-ovarian abscess, Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome (perihepatic adhesions), increased risk of hysterectomy.

9. What is bacterial vaginosis?

Answer: Overgrowth of anaerobic bacteria displacing normal lactobacilli. Causes fishy-smelling discharge, pH >4.5, clue cells on microscopy. Treated with metronidazole or clindamycin.

10. What is vulvovaginal candidiasis?

Answer: Fungal infection usually caused by Candida albicans. Symptoms: itching, burning, thick white discharge, dyspareunia. Risk factors: diabetes, antibiotics, pregnancy, immunosuppression.

11. What are the types of urinary incontinence?

Answer: Stress: urine loss with increased abdominal pressure. Urge: sudden urge to urinate with involuntary loss. Mixed: combination of both. Overflow: retention with dribbling.

12. What is the management of stress incontinence?

Answer: Conservative: pelvic floor exercises, weight loss, bladder training. Medical: topical estrogen, duloxetine. Surgical: mid-urethral slings, colposuspension, urethral bulking agents.

13. What is uterine prolapse?

Answer: Descent of uterus through vaginal canal due to weakened pelvic floor support. Graded 1-4 based on descent. Causes: childbirth, aging, obesity, chronic cough, constipation.

14. What are the types of ovarian cysts?

Answer: Functional: follicular, corpus luteum. Pathological: dermoid, endometriotic, cystadenomas. Malignant: epithelial, germ cell, sex cord-stromal tumors. Most are benign and resolve spontaneously.

15. What are the red flag symptoms for ovarian cancer?

Answer: Persistent abdominal distension, early satiety, pelvic/abdominal pain, urinary symptoms, weight loss, ascites, palpable mass. Symptoms are often vague and nonspecific.

16. What is the management of ovarian cysts?

Answer: Functional cysts: observation, hormonal contraception. Complex cysts: tumor markers, imaging, surgical evaluation. Depends on age, size, characteristics, and symptoms.

17. What are uterine fibroids?

Answer: Benign smooth muscle tumors of uterus. Estrogen-dependent. Symptoms: heavy menstrual bleeding, pelvic pain, pressure symptoms, infertility. Treatment depends on symptoms and fertility desires.

18. What is the management of fibroids?

Answer: Medical: tranexamic acid, hormonal treatments, GnRH agonists, ulipristal acetate. Surgical: myomectomy, hysterectomy, uterine artery embolization, MRI-guided focused ultrasound.

19. What is abnormal uterine bleeding?

Answer: Any bleeding pattern that differs from normal menstruation. Includes heavy, prolonged, frequent, or irregular bleeding. Causes: structural (fibroids, polyps) or non-structural (hormonal, coagulation disorders).

20. What are the causes of postmenopausal bleeding?

Answer: Endometrial atrophy (most common), endometrial cancer, hormone therapy, endometrial polyps, cervical cancer, vulvar/vaginal pathology. Requires urgent investigation.

21. What is the investigation of postmenopausal bleeding?

Answer: Transvaginal ultrasound (endometrial thickness), hysteroscopy, endometrial biopsy, cervical cytology, examination. Endometrial thickness >4mm warrants further investigation.

22. What are the symptoms of menopause?

Answer: Vasomotor: hot flashes, night sweats. Genitourinary: vaginal dryness, dyspareunia, urinary symptoms. Psychological: mood changes, sleep disturbance, cognitive changes. Long-term: osteoporosis, cardiovascular disease.

23. What is hormone replacement therapy (HRT)?

Answer: Treatment with estrogen ± progestin to alleviate menopausal symptoms. Benefits: symptom relief, bone protection. Risks: VTE, stroke, breast cancer (combined HRT), gallbladder disease.

24. What are the contraindications to HRT?

Answer: Absolute: breast cancer, endometrial cancer, VTE, stroke, liver disease, undiagnosed vaginal bleeding. Relative: gallbladder disease, migraine with aura, hypertension, diabetes.

25. What is cervical screening?

Answer: Cytology (Pap smear) every 3 years ages 21-29, HPV testing every 5 years ages 30-65. Detects precancerous changes. Abnormal results require colposcopy and possible biopsy.

26. What are the risk factors for cervical cancer?

Answer: HPV infection (especially types 16, 18), smoking, immunosuppression, multiple sexual partners, early sexual activity, high parity, long-term oral contraceptive use, DES exposure.

27. What is colposcopy?

Answer: Detailed examination of cervix using magnification after abnormal cytology. Acetic acid applied to identify abnormal areas. Biopsies taken from abnormal areas. Treatment can be performed simultaneously.

28. What are the treatment options for cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN)?

Answer: CIN 1: observation (often regresses). CIN 2-3: excision (LEEP, cold knife cone, laser) or ablation (cryotherapy, laser). Follow-up cytology essential.

29. What is the management of infertility?

Answer: History, examination, basic investigations (semen analysis, ovulation assessment, tubal patency). Treatments: ovulation induction, IUI, IVF, surgery for tubal disease or endometriosis.

30. What are the causes of female infertility?

Answer: Ovulatory disorders (35%), tubal factors (20%), endometriosis (15%), uterine/cervical factors (10%), unexplained (20%). Age-related decline in ovarian reserve is increasingly common.

31. What is in vitro fertilization (IVF)?

Answer: Assisted reproductive technology involving ovarian stimulation, egg retrieval, fertilization in laboratory, embryo transfer. Success rates depend on age, cause of infertility, and clinic factors.

32. What are the risks of IVF?

Answer: Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome, multiple pregnancy, ectopic pregnancy, ovarian torsion, infection, psychological stress, financial burden. Long-term cancer risk unclear.

33. What is ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS)?

Answer: Complication of ovarian stimulation with enlarged ovaries, fluid retention, and electrolyte imbalance. Severe cases can be life-threatening. Prevention: careful monitoring, trigger timing.

34. What are the different types of contraception?

Answer: Barrier: condoms, diaphragm. Hormonal: pills, patches, rings, injections, implants. Intrauterine: copper, hormonal. Permanent: sterilization. Emergency: pills, copper IUD.

35. What are the contraindications to combined oral contraceptives?

Answer: Thrombotic disease, cerebrovascular disease, ischemic heart disease, complicated migraine, breast cancer, severe liver disease, undiagnosed vaginal bleeding, pregnancy.

36. What is emergency contraception?

Answer: Prevention of pregnancy after unprotected intercourse. Options: levonorgestrel (within 72 hours), ulipristal acetate (within 120 hours), copper IUD (within 120 hours, most effective).

37. What is dysmenorrhea?

Answer: Primary: painful periods without underlying pathology, caused by prostaglandins. Secondary: painful periods due to underlying condition (endometriosis, fibroids, PID). Treatment: NSAIDs, hormonal contraceptives.

38. What is premenstrual syndrome (PMS)?

Answer: Physical and psychological symptoms occurring in luteal phase, resolving with menstruation. Symptoms: bloating, breast tenderness, mood changes, irritability. Severe form: premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD).

39. What is the management of PMS?

Answer: Lifestyle modifications, dietary changes, exercise, stress management, vitamin B6, evening primrose oil. Severe cases: hormonal contraceptives, antidepressants, GnRH agonists.

40. What is hirsutism?

Answer: Excessive hair growth in androgen-dependent areas in women. Causes: PCOS, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, androgen-secreting tumors, medications. Investigation: testosterone, DHEAS, 17-OHP.

41. What is the management of hirsutism?

Answer: Treat underlying cause, cosmetic measures (laser, electrolysis), anti-androgens (cyproterone acetate, spironolactone), topical eflornithine, weight loss in PCOS.

42. What are the causes of chronic pelvic pain?

Answer: Gynecological: endometriosis, adhesions, ovarian cysts, PID. Non-gynecological: IBS, interstitial cystitis, musculoskeletal pain, nerve entrapment. Often multifactorial.

43. What is the investigation of chronic pelvic pain?

Answer: Detailed history, examination, basic investigations (FBC, inflammatory markers, STI screen), ultrasound, laparoscopy if indicated. Multidisciplinary approach often needed.

44. What is adenomyosis?

Answer: Presence of endometrial tissue within myometrium. Causes heavy menstrual bleeding, dysmenorrhea, enlarged uterus. Diagnosed by MRI or ultrasound. Treatment: hormonal, hysterectomy.

45. What is vulvodynia?

Answer: Chronic vulvar pain without identifiable cause. Symptoms: burning, stinging, irritation. Types: generalized or localized (vestibulodynia). Treatment: topical anesthetics, antidepressants, anticonvulsants, physiotherapy.

46. What is lichen sclerosus?

Answer: Chronic inflammatory condition affecting vulvar skin. Causes itching, pain, white patches, scarring. Risk of malignant transformation. Treatment: topical corticosteroids, regular follow-up.

47. What is the management of sexual dysfunction?

Answer: Address psychological factors, relationship issues, medical causes. Treatments: counseling, hormonal therapy, topical preparations, lifestyle modifications, specialist referral.

48. What are the causes of secondary amenorrhea?

Answer: Pregnancy (most common), PCOS, hypothalamic dysfunction, pituitary disorders, ovarian failure, thyroid disorders, hyperprolactinemia, Asherman's syndrome, medications.

49. What is the investigation of amenorrhea?

Answer: Pregnancy test, hormonal profile (FSH, LH, prolactin, TSH, testosterone), progestogen challenge test, pelvic ultrasound, karyotype if indicated, MRI pituitary if prolactin elevated.

50. What is Asherman's syndrome?

Answer: Intrauterine adhesions usually following uterine surgery or infection. Causes amenorrhea, reduced menstrual flow, infertility, recurrent pregnancy loss. Treatment: hysteroscopic adhesiolysis, hormone therapy.

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